yeah, if you assume a model where the female has 5% of her genome mixed due to inactivation, uniformly distributed effect sizes across the genome for a quantitative trait, and male variance = sigma ^ 2, I think you'd get
VR0 = sigma ^ 2 / ((((.95 ^ 2) * sigma ^ 2) + ((.05 ^ 2) * (sigma ^ 2 / 4))) = 1.11, which isn't too much different than you'd suggest.
yeah, if you assume a model where the female has 5% of her genome mixed due to inactivation, uniformly distributed effect sizes across the genome for a quantitative trait, and male variance = sigma ^ 2, I think you'd get
VR0 = sigma ^ 2 / ((((.95 ^ 2) * sigma ^ 2) + ((.05 ^ 2) * (sigma ^ 2 / 4))) = 1.11, which isn't too much different than you'd suggest.
yeah, if you assume a model where the female has 5% of her genome mixed due to inactivation, uniformly distributed effect sizes across the genome for a quantitative trait, and male variance = sigma ^ 2, I think you'd get
VR0 = sigma ^ 2 / ((((.95 ^ 2) * sigma ^ 2) + ((.05 ^ 2) * (sigma ^ 2 / 4))) = 1.11, which isn't too much different than you'd suggest.